Philhellene Posted January 21, 2007 Report Share Posted January 21, 2007 It`s an amazing fact that among the Arabian coins we can find the ones with portraits of Greek Hellenistic kings and Roman emperors. I guess that the Arabs just restruck the reverses of these coins, but I still have the question: why they didn`t do the same thing with obverses? If of course they actually restruck them. Here is the example: http://www.grifterrec.com/coins/islam/artuqid/artuqid.html Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gaius Octavius Posted January 22, 2007 Report Share Posted January 22, 2007 Don't know how this adds up: Some Roman coins were 'trade' coins. The Turks at first considered themselves successors to the Romans. Their country was called Rum. If they were re-struck, that should be easy enough to see. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Andrew Dalby Posted January 22, 2007 Report Share Posted January 22, 2007 Don't know how this adds up: Some Roman coins were 'trade' coins. The Turks at first considered themselves successors to the Romans. Their country was called Rum. If they were re-struck, that should be easy enough to see. There are fascinating examples all through history of coin types that become accepted, or even "compulsory", far beyond their original territory. Imitations of Philip tetradrachms in Iron Age Gaul and Britain; imitation Byzantine and Arabic coins in Anglo-Saxon England; Maria Theresa talers circulating in Ethiopia. I believe that imitation Athenian "owls" (5th or 4th century BC) were also struck in Arabia. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Philhellene Posted January 22, 2007 Author Report Share Posted January 22, 2007 Imitation would be possible only in two cases: if the Arabs weren`t Muslims (Islam prohibits to picture human faces) and if they had a technology that could help them to portray human faces with such an impressive quality. But they were Muslims and they weren`t good moneyers. So there could be only one possibility for them to struck such obverses if they got the initial Seleucid or Roman dies. But I don`t think they had them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Andrew Dalby Posted January 22, 2007 Report Share Posted January 22, 2007 Imitation would be possible only in two cases: if the Arabs weren`t Muslims (Islam prohibits to picture human faces) and if they had a technology that could help them to portray human faces with such an impressive quality. But they were Muslims and they weren`t good moneyers. So there could be only one possibility for them to struck such obverses if they got the initial Seleucid or Roman dies. But I don`t think they had them. Ah, but they weren't Muslims. There were no Muslims before Muhammad, who lived in the 7th century AD. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Philhellene Posted January 22, 2007 Author Report Share Posted January 22, 2007 They were. These coins are dated XII C. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gaius Octavius Posted January 22, 2007 Report Share Posted January 22, 2007 Not all Moslems prohibit pictures of humans - even in their mosques and on their rugs. If they had the ability to strike Arabic ciphers, then they had the ability to strike humans - and did. As far as money lenders is concerned, that is easily overcome by using intermediaries - as is done today by the Saudis. A.D. is absolutely correct about the Maria Teresa. It was a Trade coin. I have one. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Philhellene Posted January 22, 2007 Author Report Share Posted January 22, 2007 Nevertheless Arabian moneyers weren`t able to strike coins of Hellenistic or Roman quality. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DecimusCaesar Posted January 22, 2007 Report Share Posted January 22, 2007 It seems like a large obstacle to the Arabs if they refused to have coins with human faces shown on them. How did they trade with Byzantium and Europe? Were these problems overlooked by them on some occassions? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Philhellene Posted January 22, 2007 Author Report Share Posted January 22, 2007 (edited) I`m so stupid, I didn`t look at other coins besides the ones with Hellenistic and Roman obverses. Arabs did strike the coins with human faces, but these faces are much worse than Hellenistic ones. It proves my version that they couldn`t do good quality coins. It seems like a large obstacle to the Arabs if they refused to have coins with human faces shown on them. How did they trade with Byzantium and Europe? Were these problems overlooked by them on some occassions? It seems like you found something offensive in my words. By the way, the Arabian coins are better than Byzantine ones. Edited January 22, 2007 by Philhellene Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gaius Octavius Posted January 22, 2007 Report Share Posted January 22, 2007 I`m so stupid, I didn`t look at other coins besides the ones with Hellenistic and Roman obverses. Arabs did struck the coins with human faces, but these faces are much worse than Hellenistic ones. It proves my version that they couldn`t do good quality coins. It seems like a large obstacle to the Arabs if they refused to have coins with human faces shown on them. How did they trade with Byzantium and Europe? Were these problems overlooked by them on some occassions? It seems like you found something offensive in my words. By the way, the Arabian coins are better than Byzantine ones. I also don't think that D.C. took offense at anything. He is just asking questions. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Philhellene Posted January 23, 2007 Author Report Share Posted January 23, 2007 Why did you underline some of my sentences? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gaius Octavius Posted January 23, 2007 Report Share Posted January 23, 2007 Why did you underline some of my sentences? Don't they contradict each other? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Philhellene Posted January 23, 2007 Author Report Share Posted January 23, 2007 No, they don`t. The medieval Arabian coins are worse than ancient Hellenistic (I mean Hellenistic period) and Roman coins but they are better than contemporary Byzantine coins. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Caesar CXXXVII Posted January 23, 2007 Report Share Posted January 23, 2007 Ah, but they weren't Muslims. There were no Muslims before Muhammad, who lived in the 7th century AD. Heh , The Muslims call Abraham "the first Muslim"... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.
Note: Your post will require moderator approval before it will be visible.