[Mysteries of the Sphinx?]

Aggravating waste of time.

[No/si = Nu And Da!]

Thanks, guys. Same answers I get from Romanians. It's just hard for me to accept that they'd changed just half a pair of opposites.

 

Something I googled on "Dacia" about the language; that according to both Herodotus and Pliny, the Thracian language was a coarse form of Latin. The Dac, a Thracian tribe using similar language. The Romans occupied only 14% of Dacia, for only 150 years. The author questions whether that brought their language, or they spoke a form of Latin/Thracian already.

[No/si = Nu And Da!]

As to whether 'si' is more common in the south, I don't know. But the main difference between oui and si is a matter of standard French (and it's quite difficult for an English speaker to get accustomed to): you have to say si if the previous speaker had said or suggested or implied that the answer would be non. Si means 'No, the answer is Yes!' Does that make sense?

 

For the French, I'm sure it does.

 

As to whether 'oc' is the word for yes in the south, well ... It used to be, when Proven

[No/si = Nu And Da!]

In most modern Latin tongues the words for "yes" and "no" and "si" and "no". French words at least rhyme. Slavs use "nyet" and "da". Romanians say "nu" and "da"? Changed half of a set of opposites?

 

Can anyone here explain their use of "da" (but not "nyet" without citing the presence of Slavs in Romania?

When did this begin. What hardnosed Slav conqueror taught them to say "yes" his way? When?