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Romanization in Asturia (language and identity)


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What exactly was the nature of romanization in Asturia? I've read that the native Celts violentally opposed romanization efforts even after they were conquered, but I've also read that a massive amount of Roman troops came from Asturia and that the modern Spanish language is descended from the Latin spoken in that region? Also, I've read that a "strong Asturian identity" helped them repel the Arabs, comparing this to fighting the Romans. Was there still a pre-Roman identity in Asturia?

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Asturia became roman only in the time of Augustus and was never very urbanized but by the time of the arab conquest of Iberia it was definitely latin speaking and christian. The neighboring basque lands remained pagan and kept their own language and political structure that allowed them to repel germanic and arab invaders.

Maybe Asturia was more independent minded then other gothic provinces because of the presence of briton emigrants at Britona or as a memory of the suev kingdom.

Still, I believe that important reasons for the successful independence lay with the arabs. Contrary to widespread propaganda and beliefs moorish Spain was in constant turmoil (at least until the establishment of the independent Ummeyad califate there) and it's governors focused more on conquering the rich gothic provinces in Southern Gaul then in defeating the Asturian rebellion and recovering these poor mountainous areas.

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I've read that Spanish sounds more similar to the ancient Roman accent than the Italian one; from readings of Roman poetry that I've heard, this sounds correct. If it's the truth, it might point out that Asturia was heavily romanized. Remember that they had kings with Latin names as late as the eighth century if not beyond.

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I've read that Spanish sounds more similar to the ancient Roman accent than the Italian one; from readings of Roman poetry that I've heard, this sounds correct. If it's the truth, it might point out that Asturia was heavily romanized. Remember that they had kings with Latin names as late as the eighth century if not beyond.

 

Can you cite a source for this opinion regarding sound similarity

between spoken Spanish and the sounds of "ancient" Roman poetry?

Speaking as a former teacher of both Spanish and Latin and a student of Italian I do not see how such a general statement can be made. In the long history of spoken Latin there was at least one major pronunciation shift that involved

the quality the vowel accent and possibly more changes regarding consonant pronunciation and syllabication. In looking at the pronuciation of the Spanish of Spain I hear two varieties of the letter C, one in the Madrid area and the other from Sevilla, neither of which have produce the sound of the letter C in Republican times.

Queen Victoria's name is a Latin word. Does that prove her native language was Latin?

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Can you cite a source for this opinion regarding sound similarity

between spoken Spanish and the sounds of "ancient" Roman poetry?

Speaking as a former teacher of both Spanish and Latin and a student of Italian I do not see how such a general statement can be made. In the long history of spoken Latin there was at least one major pronunciation shift that involved

the quality the vowel accent and possibly more changes regarding consonant pronunciation and syllabication. In looking at the pronuciation of the Spanish of Spain I hear two varieties of the letter C, one in the Madrid area and the other from Sevilla, neither of which have produce the sound of the letter C in Republican times.

Queen Victoria's name is a Latin word. Does that prove her native language was Latin?

 

Agreed; I would say that Spanish is not the 'closest to Latin' in the phonology department. The palatalization of various consonant groups alone, as well as the reduction of the vowel system, takes it out of the running. Most Romance linguists (including myself) tend to point to Sardinian as 'being the closest', but in all honesty none of the modern languages quite sounds like classical Latin.

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I've read that Spanish sounds more similar to the ancient Roman accent than the Italian one; from readings of Roman poetry that I've heard, this sounds correct. If it's the truth, it might point out that Asturia was heavily romanized. Remember that they had kings with Latin names as late as the eighth century if not beyond.

 

Kings with Latin names is a fact that would point only to aristocracy trying to be, if not in fact, romanized. It is not evidence in and of itself the entire population of Asturias was as thoroughly integrated. However, there seems to be linguistic evidence of heavy use of Latin during the Empire.

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I've read that Spanish sounds more similar to the ancient Roman accent than the Italian one; from readings of Roman poetry that I've heard, this sounds correct. If it's the truth, it might point out that Asturia was heavily romanized. Remember that they had kings with Latin names as late as the eighth century if not beyond.

Can you cite a source for this opinion regarding sound similarity

between spoken Spanish and the sounds of "ancient" Roman poetry?

 

It was actually on this forum (I forgot where). But sorry, it actually said that Spanish was closer to Latin than Italian. I am aware that the Romance languages do have significant changes from Latin, especially the langues d'oil and Romanian.

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