Why did the Roman Empire (esp Heartland Home Italy) quickly Adopt Blesed Holy Virgin Mother Mary As THE Goddess When Christianity Became the Official State Religion?

[EvaWolves]

This topic was inspired by a chat  I saw on Discord.

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Gonna sleep now but I really wonder why the Abrahamic becamse so patriarchal and "women as chattel property" approach? While European Chrstiaity developed so radcally different and kept mother Goddess? I mean even comparing MidEstern Christian sects to Catholicism and Estern Orhtodoxy you see a major difference in the mportance of Mary So what reasoning can you give? Any Good night see yah tomorrow.

 

 

 

 

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Well, the reason behind the Abrahamic denial of matriarchal homage was because of Eve in Genesis, being blamed for tempting Adam to eat the fruit. And in Judaism, it's still present in their practices (Qabalah demonstrates one aspect of how male & female are separated, in a concept of good vs. evil). And the Desert Fathers originally came from that context, which is seen by modern Westerners as "misogynistic" because their own pre-Christian practices accepted women, be it as the role of lustful seductresses like Aphrodite, the downtrodden housewife like Aeval, the mother like Hera or the energetic sportswoman that some men want to follow, like Athena.

 And the reason why Mary was such a no-brainer for those cultures to venerate, during the adoption of Christianity, is because of that pre-Christian acceptance of women as having some role in society (regardless of how complex or simplistic that role in society was).

But then, came the Protestant movement & the desire of some sects to resort to fundamental thought in Judaism (i.e.: Eve tempted Adam to eat the fruit, therefore all women are temptresses to be blamed for bringing man away from God). You see that with the Puritans, Plymouth Brethren, Luddites/Amish/Mennonites & Evangelicals

And what modern Westerners are terrible at, is understanding historical context; rather than concluding that the social issues of the US have its roots in Puritanical beliefs (which led to women traumatised from war with the Natives, being then accused of witchcraft & burnt at the stake, for example, or for the Puritanical belief that fair skin is superior over dark skin due to the way the sun shines on different parts of the world,) misogyny, black rights & (within the last decade only) LGBT rights issues are generally blamed on Christianity as a whole, rather than the initial Puritan sect

Another example; Mohammed's massacre of the Khaiber tribe of Jews who chose to break their peace treaty with Mohammed, to try & sell him out to the Kuresh tribe. If you read the Quran & the history of Mohammed in Medina, he made an alliance with the Jewish Khaiber tribe to be given peaceful residence & religious freedom (along with a Christian tribe). However, the leader of the Khaiber tribe was also a trade partner with the Kuresh tribe that Mohammed came from; in wanting to maintain business alliances, the Khaiber chief tried to mount a war against the Muslims, which failed & resulted in Mohammed's executing every Khaiber man of fighting age. If you look at this in the Medieval Arab context, you understand that it was an act of politics & warfare for the purpose of tribal superiority & survival, aside from the control of resources like water, food, etc. But to the modern Western eyes, it's automatically declared to be "anti-Semitic" because of the fact that Mohammed had Jews executed

Anyways, back to the idea of female representation in religion, the fact is there was an Allat & Allah, there was Ba'al Yahu & that god also had a wife (in Canaanite, Nabatean & Phoenician religion, being all pagan pantheons). However, the Jews are collectively & racially people from all 3 of these ethnicities, so historically speaking it's not exactly out of the question to say that their origins had similar implications as Mohammed's context (where a monotheistic movement sprang up from the syncretised combination of 3 different pantheons, while having revolts against the older generation in a similar manner to Kuresh vs. Mohammed's followers). There's evidence of that in the Old Testament's war against Jericho, for exampe. But never the less, since the establishment accepted female & male equality in the pantheon, while the temporal laws didn't, it'd be safe to assume that the monotheists who revolted against all other idols would also declare that women are not equal, thus eliminating Allat, Ishtar & other idols
Anyways, I'm going to sleep too. Have a good night

 

 

 

 So I'd have to ask despite the sexism of Roman civilization, why were Romans  as well as Greeks so enthusiastically quickly chose Mary Mother of Jesus Christ to become the Goddess like figure of Christianity? While other converted places esp the Middle Est even Christian were not energetic about Mary prayers?

  

Why the Greco-Roman regions had to create a Goddess standin in contrast to Judaism  and Islam?

 

Is there something unique about Greco-Roman culture for this to happen?

 

If Judaism and even Islam ever took over Ancient Rome, would they twist doctrines to create a new standin? LIke say Fatima daughter of MUhammad to be treated like a sacred virgin or Khadjiya  his first life as a standin for Mother Goddess? Would a Romanized Judaism try to interpret Yahweh as having male and female forms?

 

Why did  Blessed Holy Virgin Mother Mary get elevated into a borderline Goddess in ancient Greece and moreso Ancient Rome (esp the homeland of the Empire, the Italian Peninsula) after Christianity became the monopoly religion in throughout the Empire)? Why did other Christian regions esp the MidEast did not go to Venerate the Sacred Mother of God to nowhere close to the same level? Was there something  unique in Europe esp in the modern location of current Italy lacking elsewhere in Africa and the rest of the world during early Abrahamic Religions esp before the Catholic Church canonized its core dogma in the Dark Ages?

Edited February 27, 2022 by EvaWolves

[Novosedoff]

Hi,

I think the attached table from a Rodney Stark's book may help to explain. 

I don't know where you reside, but in Russia 60-70% of the church congregation are respresented by women. Romans seemingly were no exception. 

Edited February 27, 2022 by Novosedoff

[caldrail]

Roman pagan worship did not involve congregations. Worship was individual, conducted in a similar manner to the client/patron relationship, visiting a temple as if entering the atrium of the deity concerned. They compensated by a lot of public festivals. 

[Novosedoff]

Well, I didn't say that no man in his right mind would worship a goddess (many would still pray a dead Jew: people are more nuts than we think)

The point is that if you add up all the temples dedicated only to female gods you'll end up with 27 = 11 + 6 + 4 + 3 + 3. While 27 out of 41 is about 65%, which is apprx. the same what we observe today in Russian churches as women participation rate. 

Edited February 28, 2022 by Novosedoff

[EvaWolves]

14 minutes ago, Novosedoff said:

Well, I didn't say that no man in his right mind would worship a goddess (many would still pray a dead Jew: people are more nuts than we think). 

Beg to disagree. Afterall there is a field of Study called Mariology and it gets just as much focus as Biblical Studies and Christology in one Church. (even more in some Orders and Regions)...........