QUOTE(Iberian Overlord @ Oct 16 2005, 08:53 AM) [snapback]16480[/snapback]
If any one knows anything on the history of Iberia could you please post it here. I really want to learn about my ancestors. Starting with the Iberians, then the Celts, the Visigoths, Roman invasion, et cetera. Also about Gaul. I've tried to find out about Ancient Iberia, but I didn't get much. Thanks.
As Ursus has said, it takes some leg work. There are not many one stop shops on the web in regards to Pre-Roman Spain. What's especially hard to find are unbiased accounts...
Ursus has given a good reader's digest with a few acceptions. To start with, the Iberian legacy goes well beyond 4,000 BC as many of the Magdalenian Culture sites (~18,000-11,000 BC) are on the Spanish side of the Pyrennes. That this truely is part of the Iberian legacy deals has to do with genetics. I just posted the following in the Pelasgian thread and am posting here because it's pertinant:
QUOTE
Perfect example is Spain, the Phoenician/Punic colonial influence which is primarily representative in the modern population by the presence of Haplogroup J. The frequency of that Haplogroup in the modern population is less that 10% (or there abouts) and is clustered where you would expect. (Costa del Sol, Adalusia, etc..)
The dominant Y-Chromosome Haplogroup in Spain is M343(R1b) and is found at the astounding frequency of ~80% +/- of the modern population with the highest concentrations radiating out from the south slopes of the Pyrennes (i.e. Basque country). What I mean by astounding is that this genetic legacy goes back to when people carrying this very ancient genetic marker took up refuge in Iberia during the last glacial maximum. So the Romans, the Alans/Vandals & the Moors barely made a dent in the genetics of the indigenous population all the way into the modern age!
Furthermore, the biggest consequence from this data is that the whole presumption a 'Celtic' invasion of Iberia during the 1st Millennia BC is rubbish as is the presumtion that the Celtiberians were racially different from the southern Iberians & the Lusitanians. There may have been an encrouchment of Celtic culture into Iberia when the Iberians in the north possibly adopted a Celtic 'Lingua Franca' from their trading partners, but there was no mass movement of people that caused a north & south genetic divide in Spain during the 1st Millennia BC...
Along those lines I refer also to the following article (beware again - thick with jargon!) which deals with the matrilinear markers in geneography:
High-resolution mtDNA evidence for the late-glacial resettlement of Europe from an Iberian refugium The Pre-Roman Iberians are a facinating people and don't believe any source that claims they were a bunch of uncivilized yokles before the Phoenicians arrived to trade with them...