Hadrian’s Wall followed pre-existing Anglo-Scots borders?

[guy]

This article promotes the idea that the location of Hadrian’s Wall reflected pre-existing cultural separation and was not merely a result of Roman strategic plans. (See my comment below):

 

Quote

The archaeological evidence suggests that Hadrian’s Wall was not a cause but instead an effect of existing cultural differences between the peoples of what later became Scotland and England, and this cultural divergence continued beyond into the medieval period.

“Separate cultural trajectories led to the separate formations of the two kingdoms, entirely independent of Hadrian’s Wall,” he states.

 

       
https://www.thenational.scot/news/19778640.expert-claims-hadrians-wall-came-existing-anglo-scots-defences/

 

 

The source of this article might shed light on the biases of this conclusion. It is published in a publication that “supports an independent Scotland.” That said, this article adds an interesting theory about the location of Hadrian’s Wall (despite modern projections of national identity onto ancient events).

Edited December 12, 2021 by guy