RomanItaly Posted October 13, 2007 Report Share Posted October 13, 2007 I don't know if it is safe to ask this question but..... Is it safe to say that Rome had an influence of Greece? I mean, perhaps (obviously) not has much as vice-versa, but can we really say that in a thousand years of Roman civilization, Greece was completely unaffected culturally by Rome? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ursus Posted October 13, 2007 Report Share Posted October 13, 2007 I'd say the Byzantine Empire owed something to Roman law, political experience and military organization. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klingan Posted October 14, 2007 Report Share Posted October 14, 2007 Well the influence was at least certainly there. The Byzantines and possible the Greeks too called them self Romans for centuries after the empires fall. Actually I'm quite sure that at least the Byzantines kept on with that until rather late in the history. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gaius Octavius Posted October 14, 2007 Report Share Posted October 14, 2007 I'd say the Byzantine Empire owed something to Roman law, political experience and military organization. Justinian. Well the influence was at least certainly there. The Byzantines and possible the Greeks too called them self Romans for centuries after the empires fall. Actually I'm quite sure that at least the Byzantines kept on with that until rather late in the history. The 'Byzantines' called themselves 'Romanoi' until 1453AD. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ASCLEPIADES Posted October 14, 2007 Report Share Posted October 14, 2007 I don't know if it is safe to ask this question but..... Is it safe to say that Rome had an influence of Greece? I mean, perhaps (obviously) not has much as vice-versa, but can we really say that in a thousand years of Roman civilization, Greece was completely unaffected culturally by Rome? Salve, RI. Of course it was affected, at least as much as vice-versa. In fact, the problem is that, up to some point, it's difficult to define if we are dealing with a Romanized Hellene or a Hellenized Roman (vg, Plotinus, Porphyry, Galen, Origen, Clement, Hypatia et Cetera). This mix is the main explanation for the perennial confusion with the so-called "Byzantine" Empire; was it Roman or Greek? If you want the short answer... it was both. The topic is extensive indeed; I think this chapter should be a nice place to start with. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klingan Posted October 14, 2007 Report Share Posted October 14, 2007 Thanks for your correction GO, I've only heard it in lectures before and never really remembered it. Hopefully this will help! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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